Free PRMIA 8010 Exam Actual Questions

The questions for 8010 were last updated On Nov 5, 2024

Question No. 1

Which of the following statements are true:

1. The set of UoMs used for frequency and severity modeling should be identical

2. UoMs can be grouped together into larger combined UoMs using judgment based on the knowledge of the business

3. UoMs can be grouped together into combined UoMs using statistical techniques

4. One may use separate sets of UoMs for frequency and severity modeling

Show Answer Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C

One may use separate UoMs for frequency and severity modeling, for example, a combined UoM may be used for estimating the frequency of cyber attacks in a scenario, while the severity may be modeled using a more granular line-of-business UoM. Therefore statement I is false, while statement IV is true. Statement II is correct, UoMs can be grouped together into larger units based on the facts relating to the business, controls and the business environment. Similarly, UoMs can be grouped together based on statistical clustering techniques using the 'distance' between the units of measure and combining UoMs that are closer to each other. In addition, it is also possible to combine both business knowledge and statistical algorithms to combine UoMs.


Question No. 2

According to the Basel II framework, subordinated term debt that was originally issued 4 years ago with a maturity of 6 years is considered a part of:

Show Answer Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A

According to the Basel II framework, Tier 1 capital, also called core capital or basic equity, includes equity capital and disclosed reserves.

Tier 2 capital, also called supplementary capital, includes undisclosed reserves, revaluation reserves, general provisions/general loan-loss reserves, hybrid debt capital instruments and subordinated term debt issued originally for 5 years or longer.

Tier 3 capital, or short term subordinated debt, is intended only to cover market risk but only at the discretion of their national authority. This only includes short term subordinated debt originally issued for 2 or more years.

An interesting thing to note is the difference between 'subordinated term debt' under Tier 2 and the 'short term subordinated debt' under Tier 3. The distinction is based upon the years to maturity at the time the debt was issued. The remaining time to maturity is not relevant. For the subordinated term debt included under Tier 2, the amount that can be counted towards capital is reduced by 20% for every year when the debt is due within 5 years. This takes care of the time to maturity problem for Tier 2 subordinated debt. For Tier 3 short term subordinated debt, this is not an issue because debt will only qualify for Tier 3 if it has a lock-in clause stipulating that the debt is not required to be repaid if the effect of such repayment is to take the bank below minimum capital requirements.


Question No. 3

If EV be the expected value of a firm's assets in a year, and DP be the 'default point' per the KMV approach to credit risk, and be the standard deviation of future asset returns, then the distance-to-default is given by:

A)

B)

C)

D)

Show Answer Hide Answer
Correct Answer: D

The distance to default is the number of standard deviations that expected asset values are away from the default point. The expression in Choice 'd' represents distance to default. Choice 'd' is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect.


Question No. 4

The frequency distribution for operational risk loss events can be modeled by which of the following distributions:

1. The binomial distribution

2. The Poisson distribution

3. The negative binomial distribution

4. The omega distribution

Show Answer Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A

The binomial, Poisson and the negative binomial distributions can all be used to model the loss event frequency distribution. The omega distribution is not used for this purpose, therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer.

Also note that the negative binomial distribution provides the best model fit because it has more parameters than the binomial or the Poisson. However, in practice the Poisson distribution is most often used due to reasons of practicality and the fact that the key model risk in such situations does not arise from the choice of an incorrect underlying distribution.


Question No. 5

Which of the following are considered properties of a 'coherent' risk measure:

1. Monotonicity

2. Homogeneity

3. Translation Invariance

4. Sub-additivity

Show Answer Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B

All of the properties described are the properties of a 'coherent' risk measure.

Monotonicity means that if a portfolio's future value is expected to be greater than that of another portfolio, its risk should be lower than that of the other portfolio. For example, if the expected return of an asset (or portfolio) is greater than that of another, the first asset must have a lower risk than the other. Another example: between two options if the first has a strike price lower than the second, then the first option will always have a lower risk if all other parameters are the same. VaR satisfies this property.

Homogeneity is easiest explained by an example: if you double the size of a portfolio, the risk doubles. The linear scaling property of a risk measure is called homogeneity. VaR satisfies this property.

Translation invariance means adding riskless assets to a portfolio reduces total risk. So if cash (which has zero standard deviation and zero correlation with other assets) is added to a portfolio, the risk goes down. A risk measure should satisfy this property, and VaR does.

Sub-additivity means that the total risk for a portfolio should be less than the sum of its parts. This is a property that VaR satisfies most of the time, but not always. As an example, VaR may not be sub-additive for portfolios that have assets with discontinuous payoffs close to the VaR cutoff quantile.