Free Isaca IT-Risk-Fundamentals Exam Actual Questions

The questions for IT-Risk-Fundamentals were last updated On Feb 18, 2025

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Question No. 1

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a good risk culture?

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Correct Answer: A

A good risk culture in an organization can be identified by several characteristics. Among the options provided:

Option A: The enterprise learns from negative outcomes and treats the root cause

This option reflects a proactive and continuous improvement approach to risk management. It indicates that the organization does not just react to incidents but also learns from them and implements measures to address the underlying issues, thereby preventing recurrence. This approach aligns with best practices in risk management and demonstrates a mature risk culture.

Option B: The enterprise enables discussions of risk and facts within the risk management functions

While facilitating open discussions about risk is important, it primarily shows that the enterprise supports a communicative environment. However, it does not necessarily indicate that the enterprise takes concrete actions to learn from negative outcomes or address root causes.

Option C: The enterprise places a strong emphasis on the positive and negative elements of risk

Emphasizing both positive and negative elements of risk is beneficial as it provides a balanced view. Nonetheless, this focus alone does not provide evidence of actions taken to learn from past mistakes or to rectify the root causes of issues.

Conclusion: Option A is the best indication of a good risk culture because it demonstrates that the organization is committed to learning from past failures and improving its risk management processes by addressing the root causes of problems.


Question No. 2

Which of the following is an example of a preventive control?

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Correct Answer: C

An example of a preventive control is data management checks on sensitive data processing procedures. Here's why:

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) on Personal Database Stores: FIM is a detective control. It monitors changes to files and alerts administrators when unauthorized modifications occur.

Air Conditioning Systems with Excess Capacity to Permit Failure of Certain Components: This is an example of a contingency plan or redundancy, designed to ensure availability but not directly related to preventing security incidents.

Data Management Checks on Sensitive Data Processing Procedures: These checks are designed to ensure that data is processed correctly and securely from the start, preventing errors and unauthorized changes to sensitive data. This is a preventive measure as it aims to prevent issues before they occur.

Therefore, data management checks on sensitive data processing procedures are a preventive control.


Question No. 3

An enterprise recently implemented multi-factor authentication. During the most recent risk assessment, it was determined that cybersecurity risk is within the organization's risk appetite threshold. What is the MOST appropriate action for the organization to take regarding the remaining cybersecurity residual risk?

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Correct Answer: A

Context of Multi-Factor Authentication:

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) adds layers of security and significantly reduces cybersecurity risks by requiring multiple forms of verification before granting access.

Understanding Residual Risk:

Residual risk is the remaining risk after controls have been implemented. If the risk assessment shows that the residual risk is within the organization's risk appetite, it means the organization is willing to accept this level of risk.

Risk Response Strategies:

Accept: Recognize the risk and do not take any further action to mitigate it because it is within acceptable limits.

Mitigate: Take additional measures to further reduce the risk, which is unnecessary if it is already within acceptable levels.

Transfer: Shift the risk to another party, such as through insurance, which might be unnecessary if the risk is already acceptable.

Conclusion:

Since the residual risk is within the organization's risk appetite, the appropriate action is to Accept this residual risk, indicating no further mitigation is needed.


Question No. 4

Which of the following includes potential risk events and the associated impact?

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Correct Answer: A

A risk scenario includes potential risk events and the associated impact. Here's the detailed breakdown:

Risk Scenario: This describes potential events that could affect the organization and includes detailed descriptions of the circumstances, events, and potential impacts. It helps in understanding what could happen and how it would impact the organization.

Risk Policy: This outlines the overall approach and guidelines for managing risk within the organization. It does not detail specific events or impacts.

Risk Profile: This provides an overview of the risk landscape, summarizing the types and levels of risk the organization faces. It is more of a high-level summary rather than detailed potential events and impacts.

Therefore, a risk scenario is the most detailed in terms of potential risk events and their associated impacts.


Question No. 5

A key risk indicator (KRI) is PRIMARILY used for which of the following purposes?

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Correct Answer: B

Primary Use of KRIs:

KRIs are primarily used to predict risk events by providing measurable data that signals potential issues.

This predictive capability helps organizations to mitigate risks before they escalate.

Risk Prediction:

Effective KRIs allow organizations to foresee potential risks and implement measures to address them proactively.

This improves the overall risk management process by reducing the likelihood and impact of risk events.


ISA 315 (Revised 2019), Anlage 6 emphasizes the use of indicators and metrics to monitor and predict risks within an organization's IT and operational environments.