Free CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Actual Questions

The questions for CAS-005 were last updated On Mar 21, 2025

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Question No. 1

A security analyst Detected unusual network traffic related to program updating processes The analyst collected artifacts from compromised user workstations. The discovered artifacts were binary files with the same name as existing, valid binaries but. with different hashes which of the following solutions would most likely prevent this situation from reoccurring?

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Correct Answer: B

Implementing digital signatures ensures the integrity and authenticity of software binaries. When a binary is digitally signed, any tampering with the file (e.g., replacing it with a malicious version) would invalidate the signature. This allows systems to verify the origin and integrity of binaries before execution, preventing the execution of unauthorized or compromised binaries.

A . Improving patching processes: While important, this does not directly address the issue of verifying the integrity of binaries.

B . Implementing digital signatures: This ensures that only valid, untampered binaries are executed, preventing attackers from substituting legitimate binaries with malicious ones.

C . Performing manual updates via USB ports: This is not practical and does not scale well, especially in large environments.

D . Allowing only files from internal sources: This reduces the risk but does not provide a mechanism to verify the integrity of binaries.


CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-57, 'Recommendation for Key Management'

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on code signing

Question No. 2

An organization wants to create a threat model to identity vulnerabilities in its infrastructure. Which of the following, should be prioritized first?

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Correct Answer: A

When creating a threat model to identify vulnerabilities in an organization's infrastructure, prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities is critical. Here's why:

Exposure to Attack: External-facing infrastructure is directly exposed to the internet, making it a primary target for attackers. Any vulnerabilities in this layer pose an immediate risk to the organization's security.

Known Exploited Vulnerabilities: Vulnerabilities that are already known and exploited in the wild are of higher concern because they are actively being used by attackers. Addressing these vulnerabilities reduces the risk of exploitation significantly.

Risk Mitigation: By prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities, the organization can mitigate the most immediate and impactful threats, thereby improving overall security posture.


CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl

NIST Special Publication 800-30: Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments

OWASP Threat Modeling Cheat Sheet

Question No. 3

An organization mat performs real-time financial processing is implementing a new backup solution Given the following business requirements?

* The backup solution must reduce the risk for potential backup compromise

* The backup solution must be resilient to a ransomware attack.

* The time to restore from backups is less important than the backup data integrity

* Multiple copies of production data must be maintained

Which of the following backup strategies best meets these requirement?

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Correct Answer: A

A . Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis: An immutable storage array ensures that data, once written, cannot be altered or deleted. This greatly reduces the risk of backup compromise and provides resilience against ransomware attacks, as the ransomware cannot modify or delete the backup data. Maintaining multiple copies of production data with an immutable storage solution ensures data integrity and compliance with the requirement for multiple copies.

Other options:

B . Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync: While this ensures data redundancy, it does not provide protection against ransomware attacks, as both arrays could be compromised simultaneously.

C . Enabling remote journaling on the databases: This ensures real-time transaction mirroring but does not address the requirement for reducing the risk of backup compromise or resilience to ransomware.

D . Setting up anti-tampering on the databases: While this helps ensure data integrity, it does not provide a comprehensive backup solution that meets all the specified requirements.


CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-209, 'Security Guidelines for Storage Infrastructure'

'Immutable Backup Architecture' by Veeam

Question No. 4

A financial technology firm works collaboratively with business partners in the industry to share threat intelligence within a central platform This collaboration gives partner organizations the ability to obtain and share data associated with emerging threats from a variety of adversaries Which of the following should the organization most likely leverage to facilitate this activity? (Select two).

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Correct Answer: D, E

D . STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression): STIX is a standardized language for representing threat information in a structured and machine-readable format. It facilitates the sharing of threat intelligence by ensuring that data is consistent and can be easily understood by all parties involved.

E . TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information): TAXII is a transport mechanism that enables the sharing of cyber threat information over a secure and trusted network. It works in conjunction with STIX to automate the exchange of threat intelligence among organizations.

Other options:

A . CWPP (Cloud Workload Protection Platform): This focuses on securing cloud workloads and is not directly related to threat intelligence sharing.

B . YARA: YARA is used for malware research and identifying patterns in files, but it is not a platform for sharing threat intelligence.

C . ATT&CK: This is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques but does not facilitate the sharing of threat intelligence data.

F . JTAG: JTAG is a standard for testing and debugging integrated circuits, not related to threat intelligence.


CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

'STIX and TAXII: The Backbone of Threat Intelligence Sharing' by MITRE

NIST SP 800-150, 'Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing'

Question No. 5

SIMULATION

A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:

* The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24

subnet.

* The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen

to port 4022.

* The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a Single

workstation.

* All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.

* All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight

days.

* All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.

* Cleartext services are not allowed.

* All devices must be hardened when possible.

Instructions:

Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results. Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.

Click on Server A to review output data. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the pOSTGREsql DATABASE VIA ssh

WAP A

PC A

Laptop A

Switch A

Switch B:

Laptop B

PC B

PC C

Server A

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Correct Answer: A

WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic

This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.

Laptop A: Patch management

This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.

Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Laptop B: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.

PC B:Enable disk encryption

This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B's data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.

PC C: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:

sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config

Server A. Need to select the following: