Free Broadcom 250-586 Exam Actual Questions

The questions for 250-586 were last updated On Apr 22, 2025

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Question No. 1

What is one of the objectives of the Design phase in the SES Complete Implementation Framework?

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Correct Answer: A

One of the primary objectives of the Design phase in the SES Complete Implementation Framework is to develop the Solution Configuration Design. This design includes specific configurations, policy settings, and parameters that customize the SES Complete solution to meet the unique security needs and operational requirements of the organization. The Solution Configuration Design complements the Solution Infrastructure Design, providing a detailed plan for implementation.

SES Complete Implementation Curriculum emphasizes that creating the Solution Configuration Design is integral to the Design phase, as it ensures that all configuration aspects are thoroughly planned before deployment.


Question No. 2

Which SES Complete use case represents the Pre-Attack phase in the attack chain sequence?

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Correct Answer: A

In SES Complete, the use case of Reducing the Attack Surface represents the Pre-Attack phase in the attack chain sequence. This phase involves implementing measures to minimize potential vulnerabilities and limit exposure to threats before an attack occurs. By reducing the attack surface, organizations can proactively defend against potential exploitation paths that attackers might leverage.

Symantec Endpoint Security Complete Documentation emphasizes that reducing the attack surface is a proactive strategy in the Pre-Attack phase, aimed at strengthening security posture and preventing attacks from finding entry points in the network.


Question No. 3

Where can information about the validation of in-use features/functions be found during the Manage phase?

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Correct Answer: C

In the Manage phase, information about the validation of in-use features/functions can be found in the Test Plan. This document outlines the specific tests, criteria, and methods for verifying that the solution's features and functions are operating as expected.

Validation Purpose of the Test Plan: The Test Plan specifies the steps to validate that each configured feature is performing correctly and meeting the intended objectives.

Documentation of Test Results: It also includes documentation of results, which helps ensure that all features remain functional and aligned with requirements in the production environment.

Explanation of Why Other Options Are Less Likely:

Option A (Solution Infrastructure Design) and Option B (Solution Configuration Design) focus on setup and configuration rather than validation.

Option D (Business or Technical Objectives) are used for setting goals, not validating functionality.

The Test Plan is thus the correct source for information on validating in-use features/functions during the Manage phase.


Question No. 4

Which feature is designed to reduce the attack surface by managing suspicious behaviors performed by trusted applications?

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Correct Answer: C

Adaptive Protection is designed to reduce the attack surface by managing suspicious behaviors performed by trusted applications. This feature provides dynamic, behavior-based protection that allows trusted applications to operate normally while monitoring and controlling any suspicious actions they might perform.

Purpose of Adaptive Protection: It monitors and restricts potentially harmful behaviors in applications that are generally trusted, thus reducing the risk of misuse or exploitation.

Attack Surface Reduction: By focusing on behavior rather than solely on known malicious files, Adaptive Protection effectively minimizes the risk of attacks that exploit legitimate applications.

Explanation of Why Other Options Are Less Likely:

Option A (Malware Prevention Configuration) targets malware but does not specifically control trusted applications' behaviors.

Option B (Host Integrity Configuration) focuses on policy compliance rather than behavioral monitoring.

Option D (Network Integrity Configuration) deals with network-level threats, not application behaviors.

Therefore, Adaptive Protection is the feature best suited to reduce the attack surface by managing suspicious behaviors in trusted applications.


Question No. 5

Which policy should an administrator edit to utilize the Symantec LiveUpdate server for pre-release content?

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Correct Answer: B

To use the Symantec LiveUpdate server for pre-release content, the administrator should edit the LiveUpdate Policy. This policy controls how endpoints receive updates from Symantec, including options for pre-release content.

Purpose of the LiveUpdate Policy: The LiveUpdate Policy is specifically designed to manage update settings, including source servers, scheduling, and content types. By adjusting this policy, administrators can configure endpoints to access pre-release content from Symantec's servers.

Pre-Release Content Access: Enabling pre-release content within the LiveUpdate Policy allows endpoints to test new security definitions and updates before they are generally available. This can be beneficial for organizations that want to evaluate updates in advance.

Policy Configuration for Symantec Server Access: The LiveUpdate Policy can be set to point to the Symantec LiveUpdate server, allowing endpoints to fetch content directly from Symantec, including any available beta or pre-release updates.

Explanation of Why Other Options Are Less Likely:

Option A (System Policy) and Option C (System Schedule Policy) do not govern update settings.

Option D (Firewall Policy) controls network access rules and would not manage LiveUpdate configurations.

Therefore, to configure access to the Symantec LiveUpdate server for pre-release content, the LiveUpdate Policy is the correct policy to edit.