Free Broadcom 250-580 Exam Actual Questions

The questions for 250-580 were last updated On Mar 26, 2025

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Question No. 1

Which action can an administrator take to improve the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) dashboard performance and report accuracy?

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Correct Answer: C

To improve Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) dashboard performance and report accuracy, an administrator can rebuild database indexes. Indexes help in organizing the database for faster data retrieval, which enhances both the speed of dashboard displays and the accuracy of reporting.

Effect of Rebuilding Database Indexes:

Rebuilding indexes optimizes the database's performance by ensuring data is stored in an accessible and efficient manner. This directly impacts the responsiveness of the SEPM dashboard and improves reporting speed and accuracy.

Why Other Options Are Less Effective:

Decreasing content revisions (Option A) and limiting backups (Option D) reduce disk usage but do not affect database performance.

Lowering client installation log entries (Option B) may reduce logging but does not directly improve dashboard performance.


Question No. 2

What does an Endpoint Activity Recorder (EAR) full dump consist of?

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Correct Answer: C

An Endpoint Activity Recorder (EAR) full dump consists of all recorded events that occurred on an endpoint. This comprehensive data capture includes every relevant activity, such as process executions, file accesses, and network connections, providing a full history of events on the endpoint for detailed forensic analysis.

Purpose of EAR Full Dump:

EAR full dumps offer a complete activity record for an endpoint, enabling incident responders to thoroughly investigate the behaviors and potential compromise pathways associated with that device.

This level of detail is crucial for in-depth investigations, as it captures the entire context of actions on the endpoint rather than isolating to a single process or file.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Options A and B suggest limiting the dump to events related to a single file or process, which does not represent a full dump.

All events in the SEDR database (Option D) is inaccurate, as the full dump is specific to the events on a particular endpoint.


Question No. 3

An administrator is investigating a possible threat that occurs during the Windows startup. A file is observed that is NOT digitally signed by Microsoft. Which Anti-malware feature should the administrator enable to scan this file for threats?

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Correct Answer: A

Early Launch Antimalware (ELAM) is a feature that is designed to provide anti-malware protection during the early stages of Windows startup. When ELAM is enabled, it scans drivers and files that load during startup, especially those not digitally signed by trusted sources like Microsoft.

How ELAM Works:

ELAM loads before other drivers at startup and scans critical files and drivers, identifying potential malware that may attempt to execute before other security layers are fully operational.

Since the file observed is not digitally signed by Microsoft, ELAM would detect and analyze it at boot, preventing possible threats from initializing.

Advantages of ELAM:

It provides proactive defense against rootkits and other threats that may try to gain persistence on the system by loading during the Windows boot process.

Why Other Options Are Less Suitable:

Auto-Protect and Behavioral Analysis are effective but operate after the system has booted.

Microsoft ELAM is already enabled by default in Windows but does not provide the same customizability as SEP's ELAM feature.


Question No. 4

Which type of security threat is used by attackers to exploit vulnerable applications?

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Correct Answer: A

Lateral Movement is the type of security threat used by attackers to exploit vulnerable applications and move across systems within a network. This technique allows attackers to gain access to multiple systems by exploiting vulnerabilities in applications, thereby advancing deeper into the network.

Understanding Lateral Movement:

Lateral movement involves exploiting software vulnerabilities to access additional systems and data resources.

Attackers use this method to spread their influence within a compromised network, often leveraging application vulnerabilities to pivot to other systems.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Privilege Escalation (Option B) focuses on gaining higher access rights on a single system.

Credential Access (Option C) involves stealing login credentials rather than exploiting applications.

Command and Control (Option D) refers to the communication between compromised devices and an attacker's server, not the exploitation of applications.


Question No. 5

What feature is used to get a comprehensive picture of infected endpoint activity?

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Correct Answer: B

The Process View feature in Symantec Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) provides a detailed and comprehensive view of activities associated with an infected endpoint. It displays a graphical representation of processes, their hierarchies, and interactions, which helps security teams understand the behavior and spread of malware on the system.

Advantages of Process View:

Process View shows the relationship between different processes, including parent-child structures, which can reveal how malware propagates or persists on an endpoint.

This visualization is instrumental in tracking the full impact of an infection, helping administrators identify malicious activities linked to specific processes.

Why Other Options Are Less Suitable:

Entity View is more focused on broader data relationships, not specific infected process activities.

Full Dump and Endpoint Dump refer to memory or system dumps, which are useful for in-depth forensic analysis but do not provide an immediate, clear picture of endpoint activity.